Exam Training Material for Microsoft, Cisco and CompTIA Certifications

“Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions”, also known as HP0-505 exam, is a HP certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 120 Q&As to your HP0-505 Exam preparation. In the HP0-505 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in HP Certification helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

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QUESTION 1
Which RAID implementation provides the greatest protection against disk failures?

A. RAID 5 with a hot spare
B. RAID 0 with a hot spare
C. RAID ADG (Advanced Data Guarding) with a hot spare
D. RAID 1 with a hot spare
Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which HP software product can help an administrator simplify tasks related to
applications and infrastructure?

A. HP Support Tool Manager (STM)
B. HP OpenView Operations (OVO)
C. HP OpenView Storage Data Protector (DP)
D. HP MC/Serviceguard
Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of the HP Product Bulletin?

A. complete list of Care Packs
B. customized configuration information for HP products
C. technical and presales information on HP products
D. service-level agreements on HP products
Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which HP Integrity server supports a maximum of four hard partitions?

A. rx8620-32
B. rx7620-16
C. rx4640-8
D. rx4640-4
Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which operating systems are supported by VPM (Vulnerability and Patch Management)?
Select TWO.
A. HP-UX
B. Novell
C. Windows
D. OpenVMS
E. Linux
Answer: C,E

QUESTION 6
You are verifying the storage subsystem after a solution implementation. Certkiller .com
wants to move some data over to SATA drives because of cost, while keeping Fibre
Channel connectivity. Which HP StorageWorks solution is suitable for this customer?

A. EVA4000 with two SATA disk shelves
B. MSA1000 with SATA repeater
C. MSA50 with additional controller
D. MSA1500 with native SATA support
Answer: D

* certpaper hp HP0-505 Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As
* Updated: October 30th , 2008.

“Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions”, also known as HP0-J24 exam, is a HP certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 105 Q&As to your HP0-J24 Exam preparation. In the HP0-J24 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in HP Certification helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

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Questions: 6
Which MSA2000 feature disables cache mirroring in active-active mode and might improve the
I/O performance?

A. Write-back cache mode (WBCM)
B. Write-through cache mode (WTCM)
C. Super-sequential cache mode (SSCM)
D. Independent cache performance mode (ICPM)
Answer: D

Questions: 7
How do you acquire management access to fabric switches?

A. Through the FCIP link
B. By using SmartStart EVA
C. By using a Telnet connection
D. Through Command View EVA
Answer: C

Questions: 8
You are starting Command View EVA by using the SmartStart EVA CD to manage a storage
system. Which statement is correct?

A. You must enable the Advanced mode in SmartStart EVA and right-click on the storage
system icon.
B. You must specify the IP address of the management server and select the storage system to
manage within Command View EVA.
C. You must specify only the name of the storage system; SmartStart EVA will automatically
locate and start Command View EVA for this system.
D. You must start Command View EVA from the SmartStart EVA CD without installation and
select the storage system to manage within Command View EVA.
Answer: B

Questions: 9
When you add disks to a disk group on an EVA4400, what is a best practice to maintain
redundancy to multiple disk failures?

A. Multiples of 2
B. Multiples of 6
C. Multiples of 8
D. Multiples of the number of disk shelves
Answer: C

Questions: 10
On an EVA4400, what is a requirement for a fully allocated snapshot in relation to its source?

A. It must be located in the same disk group.
B. It must be located in a different disk group.
C. It must be assigned to a higher redundancy level.
D. It must be assigned to the same redundancy level.
Answer: A

Questions: 11
On an EVA4400, where can you specify the algorithm used to distribute the load across the
storage controller host ports?

A. MPIO manager
B. Device manager
C. Host property page
D. MPIO Device Specific Module (DSM)
Answer: A

Questions: 12
What is the status of the battery LED when the HSV300 controller cache is powered by the
batteries?

A. Solid green
B. Solid amber
C. Flashing amber
D. Fast flashing green
Answer: C

Questions: 13
What are ways to access the MSA2000 Event Logs? (Select two.)

A. Select Monitor > Status > view Event Log.
B. Present and mount the maintenance LUN.
C. Click the Event Log icon in the system panel.
D. Browse to https://:2381/EventLog.
E. Dump the Event Log through the serial adapter cable.
Answer: A, C

* certpaper hp HP0-J24 Questions and Answers : 105 Q&As
* Updated: October 29th , 2008

“Storage Technologist Foundation Exam”, also known as e20-001 exam, is a EMC certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 201 Q&As to your e20-001 Exam preparation. In the e20-001 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Technology Foundations helping to ready you for your successful EMC Certification.

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QUESTION 10
Which command do you use to change the browse and the retention times of a save set?

A. nsrmm
B. nsrls
C. nsrjb
D. mminfo
Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which backup strategy is used to backup data to an offsite location?

A. SnapView
B. Vault Backup
C. Remote Backup
D. Remote Copy
Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which tool is used to align the data to track boundaries on a LUN presented to Windows
2003 Enterprise Server?

A. Disk Management
B. Diskpart
C. Navisphere
D. Diskpar
Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The customer asks you to make a clone of a save set in NetWorker. There is one
appendable clone volume available. However, the clone operation does not use this
volume and is asking for a new volume to be mounted. What may be the cause?

A. Source volume is being used for another clone operation
B. Clone volume has an earlier clone of the save set
C. Source volume has an earlier clone of the save set
D. Entire cloned save set must fit on the clone volume and there is not enough room
Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Your customer wants to automatically create a copy of critical save sets using
NetWorker. How do you implement this?

A. Configure client to run two simultaneous backups
B. Execute the nsrclone command
C. Enable cloning on the group resource
D. Configure automatic staging of save sets from disk to tape

Answer: C

* certpaper emc e20-001 Questions and Answers : 201 Q&As
* Updated: October 30th , 2008.

“Citrix Presentation Server 4.5: Support Exam”, also known as 1Y0-264 exam, is a Citrix certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, Pass4sure has assembled to take you through 86 Q&As to your 1Y0-264 Exam preparation. In the 1Y0-264 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Citrix Certification helping to ready you for your successful Citrix Certification. <br><br>

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1. Scenario: An administrator recently installed Presentation Server in a pilot environment and has not yet made any modifications to the default settings for the farm properties. The pilot user group includes technical employees from several regional offices and the headquarters location. Users who access the pilot environment from wireless connections report that their screens freeze on occasion and an hourglass appears. A few seconds after the hourglass appears, they lose their connection.
The administrator should identify the issue affecting the environment by checking if __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A.Session Reliability is disabled
B.Auto Client Reconnect is enabled
C.the time to keep broken sessions active is sufficient
D.Access Control has been allowed for any connection
Answer: C<br><br>

2. Scenario: Users report that connections to the Presentation Server farm intermittently fail. The administrator finds that impacted users are not located in any particular location or accessing any specific application. Users who access the Presentation Server farm through Program Neighborhood are not affected, but those who access the Presentation Server farm through Web Interface are experiencing this issue approximately 25% of the time.
A likely cause of this problem is that the __________ Service on one of the four load balanced servers running Presentation Server has failed. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A.IMA
B.ICA
C.XML
D.SMA
Answer: C<br><br>

3. Scenario: An administrator installed the License Management Console on a different server than the License Server after installing Web Interface. The administrator needs to make sure the correct port number is being used for the License Management Console.
What is the correct port number for the License Management Console?
A.1494
B.1604
C.8082
D.27000
Answer: C<br><br>

4. Scenario: Users in a large organization are encountering problems when they attempt to open a published application on the server running Presentation Server. The administrator verifies the problem and determines that multiple instances of the application cannot be run simultaneously.
How should the administrator address this issue?
A.Limit the user to one application session.
B.Stream the application to the user desktop.
C.Increase the set CPU priority level for the published application.
D.Configure Content Redirection using the Program Neighborhood Agent.
Answer: B<br><br>

5. Users in different time zones have notified an administrator of a Presentation Server environment that the time displayed on their applications is incorrect.
How can the administrator correct this issue?
A.Configure the Client Time Zone (CTZ) rule.
B.Configure local time estimation for all users.
C.Enable the time zone rule for the server in the policy.
D.Disable the time zone rule Do not use client local time in the policy.
Answer: D<br><br>

6. When configuring a Microsoft SQL replicated environment in an existing farm, which command does an administrator need to run?
A.DSMAINT CONFIG
B.DSMAINT MIGRATE
C.DSMAINT FAILOVER
D.DSMAINT PUBLISHSQLDS
Answer: D<br><br>

7. An administrator has received several calls about applications not launching when users try to use Application Streaming to the desktop.
Which two issues would cause this problem? (Choose two.)
A.The .ICA file is corrupted.
B.The .RAD file is corrupted.
C.The user does not have access to the file share.
D.The user is running an old version of the Web client.
Answer: BC<br><br>

8. A user is trying to gain off-line access to a streamed application using only Program Neighborhood Agent. However, the user is unable to connect.
What is causing this issue?
A.The Web Client is not installed on the user’s computer.
B.The Streaming Client is not installed on the user’s computer.
C.The user is trying to launch the application from Web Interface.
D.The user is trying to launch the application from Program Neighborhood.
Answer: B<br><br>

9. An administrator received phone calls from users who are unable to bypass authentication when they log onto their disconnected sessions.
What is the reason for this issue?
A.NTLM v2 is not enabled in Active Directory.
B.The administrator did not enable the Streaming Client trust.
C.Smart Card authentication was not enabled on the Web Interface site.
D.The administrator did not set a policy for the application delivery method.
Answer: B<br><br>

10. Scenario: An administrator has set up off-line access to specific applications for certain users. The administrator is now testing the setup and is unable to connect to the applications.
Which step does the administrator need to take to resolve this issue?
A.Configure off-line users at the farm level.
B.Reconfigure the License Server to use off-line licenses.
C.Configure applications for off-line use at the server level.
D.Purchase off-line licenses for the users within the company.
Answer: A

Exam DescriptionThe Securing Networks with Cisco Routers and Switches exam (SNRS 642-504) is one of the exams associated with the Cisco Certified Security Professional certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the SNRS course. This exam includes simulations and tests a candidate’s knowledge and ability to secure networks using Cisco routers and switches.

Exam TopicsThe following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Implement Cisco Layer 2 security
Utilize Cisco IOS commands to mitigate Layer 2 attacks
Implement Cisco Identity-Based Networking Services on Cisco Catalyst Switches
Implement Identity Management using ACS as the Authentication Server

Configure Cisco IOS Firewalls to mitigate network threats
Identify and describe the advanced capabilities of the IOS firewall feature set
Configure Classic IOS Firewall (CBAC) and NAT to dynamically mitigate identified threats to the network
Verify Classic IOS Firewall (CBAC) configuration and operation
Configure IOS Zone-Based Firewalls including advanced application inspections and URL filtering
Verify Zone-Based Firewall operations

Configure Cisco IOS-IPS to identify and mitigate threats to network resources
Identify and describe the advanced capabilities of the Cisco IOS-IPS feature set including Signature Event Action Processing
Configure Cisco IOS-IPS features to identify threats and dynamically block them from entering the network
Verify Cisco IOS-IPS operations
Maintain, update and tune Cisco IOS-IPS signatures

Configure Cisco VPNs to provide secure connectivity for site-to-site and remote access communications
Describe IPsec features and functionality
Describe GRE/IPsec features and functionality
Configure secure connectivity for site-to-site VPN using certificate authorities
Describe DMVPN features and functionality
Configure secure connectivity for site-to-site VPN using DMVPN
Verify secure site-to-site VPN operations
Implement IOS SSL VPN
Configure Cisco IOS Easy VPN Server with Dynamic Virtual Tunnel Interface (DVTI)
Configure Cisco IOS Easy VPN remote using both router and VPN software clients
Verify Cisco IOS Easy VPN implementations
Implement IOS GET VPN operations
Describe High Availability IPsec VPNs

Implement Network Foundation Protection using the CLI
Describe NFP features and functionality
Secure the management plane using Cisco IOS security features
Secure the data plane using Cisco IOS security features
Secure the control plane using Cisco IOS security features

Product DescriptionExam Number/Code: 642-504
Exam Name: Securing Networks with Cisco Routers and Switches

“Securing Networks with Cisco Routers and Switches”, also known as 642-504 exam, is a Cisco certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 150 Q&As to your 642-504 Exam preparation. In the 642-504 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCSP helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

“Adobe Photoshop CS 2 ACE Exam”, also known as 9A0-044 exam, is a Adobe certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 140 questions to your 9A0-044 Exam preparation. In the 9A0-044 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Photoshop helping to ready you for your successful Adobe Certification.

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1.You are using a Brush tool. Which blending mode always results in a darker color?
A. Behind
B. Normal
C. Screen
D. Multiply
Answer: D

2.Which type of layers are required when you are moving elements in a Web animation?
A. single
B. locked
C. multiple
D. grouped
Answer: C

3.Which is an advantage of using a vector drawing tool over a raster painting tool?
A. Vector shapes use layers.
B. Vector shapes use 16-bit/channel color rendering.
C. Vector shapes can have filters applied to them repeatedly.
D. Vector shapes can be repeatedly transformed without degrading their edges.
Answer: D

4.You have a clipping mask acting on several other layers. You want to apply a layer style to the entire clipped
entity. What should you do?
A. apply the style to the layers one at a time
B. apply the style to the topmost clipped layer
C. apply the style to the base or masking layer
D. create a layer group for the layers, then apply the style to the set
Answer: C

5.You are creating an image for use solely on a computer monitor. Which pixel aspect ratio setting you should
use?
A. Square
B. DV NTSC
C. Anamorphic
D. DV NTSC Widescreen
Answer: A

6.What is the result of painting with a gray color in Quick Mask mode?
A. The selected area increases when you leave Quick Mask mode.
B. The selected area decreases when you leave Quick Mask mode.
C. The selected area is unchanged when you leave Quick Mask mode.
D. The selected area includes semi-transparent areas when you leave Quick Mask mode.
Answer: D

7.Which filter allows you to apply different sharpening settings to shadows, highlights, and midtones?
A. Sharpen
B. Sharpen More
C. Unsharp Mask
D. Smart Sharpen
Answer: D

# certpaper Adobe 9a0-044 Questions and Answers : 140 questions
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Exam Number/Code: 220-601
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Essentials Exam
VUE Code: 220-601
Exam Language(s): English

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Exam Number/Code: 642-511
Exam Name:VPN and Security Cisco Secure Virtual Private Networks (CSVPN)
VUE Code: 642-511
Exam Language(s): English

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Exam Number/Code: 640-460Exam Name:IIUC Implementing Cisco IOS Unified Communications (IIUC)
VUE Code: 640-460
Exam Language(s): English

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MS.NET Framework 2.0-Web-based Client Development : 70-528 Exam

Exam Number/Code: 70-528
Exam Name: MS.NET Framework 2.0-Web-based Client Development
VUE Code: 70-528
Questions Type: Single choice,
Real Exam Question Numbers: 45
Exam Language(s): English

“MS.NET Framework 2.0-Web-based Client Development”, also known as 70-528 exam, is a Microsoft certification.
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Candidates for this exam work on a team in a medium or large development environment that uses Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2003 Enterprise Developer or Visual Studio 2005. Candidates should have at least one year of experience developing Web-based applications by using the Microsoft .NET Framework. Candidates should have a working knowledge of Visual Studio 2005 and a sound knowledge of the new features of ASP.NET 2.0.

Candidates for this exam work on a team in a medium-sized or large development environment that uses Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2003 Enterprise Developer or Microsoft Visual Studio 2005. Candidates should have at least one year of experience developing Web-based applications by using the Microsoft .NET Framework. Candidates should have a working knowledge of Visual Studio 2005 and a sound knowledge of the new features of ASP.NET 2.0.

This exam measures your ability to develop and implement Web-based applications with Web forms, ASP.NET, and the .NET Framework. Before taking the exam, you should be proficient in the job skills listed in the following table. The table shows the Official Microsoft Learning Products that may help you reach competency in the skills being tested in the exam.